Baptism for the dead

Romans 6:3-4

• "Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?
• Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life."

This is what baptism for the dead illustrates. Our death in Christ's death. Just as the verse above says, we are Baptized into Christ's death and made alive. Resurrected in Him. And verses 20-28 goes on to say how the truth is that because by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead, and now is Christ risen from the dead, and speaks of Christ reigning until all things shall be subdued unto him, and the Son also himself be subject unto Him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all. It is in this context that the next verse reads:

1st Corinthians 15:29

• "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?"

If all this is not true about the resurrection from the dead, and the judgment, and the end of all things, then why are Christians baptized for the dead, when the dead (according to this philosophy) do not rise at all? It would make no sense. But the truth is, we were buried with Him in baptism. i.e., our baptism is for [huper] (for the sake of, or for the benefit of) the dead, that the dead rise because of that Baptism of the Spirit. Once we read this verse in the proper context of the whole chapter, the truth becomes self evident. We are baptized for the sake of the dead, because we were dead in trespass and sin, and needed a resurrection, which baptism gives us. We were dead, and have been raised with Christ in baptism. The baptism is for us, the dead, that in our death with Christ, we are resurrected by that baptism.

Colossians 2:12

• "Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead."

We who are buried with Christ in Baptism, declare by that act of God that we believe that He died and was buried for us, and rose again. And we in His baptism. Water baptism merely 'signifies' that One true baptism (ephesians 4:5).

Matthew 3:11

• "I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: He shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:"

As Christ went through the fires of Hell suffering death laden with our sins, we died with Him, that likewise we should also be raised up with Him. In other words, we are dead with Him, and we are buried with Him in this Spiritual baptism, wherein we are risen. That is the baptism or cleansing for the dead. That is the context of 1st Corinthians chapter 15. And that is the understanding of this passage and our hope for the resurrection to Life.

We are identified with Christ and have his righteousness imputed to us by being baptized in the Spirit of God. For the sake of the dead, we are made alive in the Spirit.

The problem with interpreting the scriptures is not in the alleged obscure or ambiguous language. God has not inspired confusion, the real problem is in man not this passage. It is man who takes the passages in question out of total context, and then teaches confused and mis-informed doctrines. And he does this because 'he wants to.' Scripture considered honestly, carefully, and in context not only with itself, but with the whole of the Bible, usually presents it's own solutions. And they must be consistent and in agreement with the whole of the Bible. When we ask the fundamental questions, we get the Biblical answers. For example, what is the topic of the Chapter? What is God declaring in His reference to Baptism for the dead? Does the context show us that God is teaching about Baptism of living people for dead people? Does Baptizing a living person save them? If not, then how much less would it Save one who is already dead?

When these questions are answered honestly, it becomes self evident that this passage has nothing to do with the unbiblical practice of Christians being baptized for people who have died, but with baptism as it is the efficacy of the death and resurrection in Christ.

When Paul used the language of being 'baptized for the dead,' he was arguing for the resurrection from the dead by baptism. The context itself shows us that this is the truth, and we must so interpret the passage if we would understand it accurately. The context of the passage is the resurrection, and this interpretation is not only consistent with that context, but speaks specifically to it. On the other hand, if we (like some others) were to conclude that God was teaching that we may be baptized for, or as proxies on behalf the dead persons, then have a twofold problem.

1. We not only have a doctrine which is nowhere else spoken of in all of scripture, but we force God to introduce an entirely new subject into this context 'with only this one sentence,' and then never speaks of it again anywhere.
2. We have a doctrine which is contradictory to the rest of the Bible. The Holy Bible declares very unambiguously that it is impossible for one to be Saved without faith in Jesus Christ as Savior. No one after death can be saved by the action of someone who is alive.

The teaching that men can be Saved merely by an act of another man participating in water baptism, is not only unbiblical (John 14:6), it is anti-biblical. It is unreasonable to draw such conclusions about this text, based on the scripture alone (Sola Scriptura), therefore this doctrine is obviously born from the mind of men, and not of God.

This passage is simply another illustration of the well established doctrine of baptism of the Spirit, and all that this entails. In baptism, the Christian is risen from the dead. For this is the purpose, and the hope of the resurrection (Rom. 6:3-6) which the sacrament of water baptism signifies. We are baptized for the sake of the dead, that in that baptism, the dead are made alive. That's why Paul said, else if the dead don't rise (resurrection), why be baptized for the dead? Since our baptism is for the resurrection of the dead. Then our baptism means nothing if the dead do not really rise.

This is the Glorious truth that Christ did not die in vain, He died that we could die in him, and be risen with Him, that death would have no more power over us. This is the benefit of baptism for the dead. The old body must be put to death, buried, and resurrected to new life. This is the Biblical definition of being 'baptized for the dead.' This passage I believe is Paul illustrating to the Church just why we are baptized into Christ. And that reason is that we receive life everlasting through His death and resurrection.

Baptism

Baptism in Christ.

The word “baptize” is a transliteration of the original Greek word baptizw (baptizo). In turn, baptizo comes from the root word baptw (bapto), a term used in the first century for immersing a garment first into bleach and then into dye, both cleansing and changing the color of the cloth.[1] (Note its similarity to baptism's cleansing of sin and becoming a new person through Christ.) Stated another way, when you process cloth to change its color, you are said to “baptize” it. If sprinkling of any kind was to be practiced, a different Greek word would have been used, but it was not.

True or false:

• “Baptism is just an outward sign of an inward grace, so it can be done later.”
• “You need to ‘grow in Christ’ (become good enough) before you are ready to be baptized.”
• “To join our church, you have to be baptized into our church.”


One thing is clear, the Bible always places believing in Christ for salvation and baptism together. They are not separated. Consider these references:

Acts chapter 2, verse 41 (Acts 2:41) - 3,000 people were baptized after believing on the first day of the Christian church. Verses 38 and 39 make it clear that this is the way that it will always be done. That is, all people who accept Christ as their savior will come to Him in this way.

Acts 8:26-39 - We know where this road from Jerusalem to Gaza is. Verse 26 terms it a “desert.” The only water there was oasis water. This means that the eunuch and Philip climbed down into the people's drinking water to do this. Apparently, Philip and the eunuch did not think it could wait until later! (You will also notice they did not take a handful of water and “sprinkle” the eunuch to keep things sanitary, either.) The Bible states that all Philip did was “preach Jesus to him” (verse 35) and then the eunuch said that he wanted to be baptized (verse 36). This means that the preaching of Jesus includes preaching the need to be baptized.

Acts 9:18 - after this encounter with Jesus on the Damascus road, Saul (later renamed Paul) decided to accept Jesus—and was baptized.

Acts 10:47,48 - Cornelius and those with him were commanded to be baptized, becoming the first non-Jewish converts to Christianity.

Acts 16:13-15 - Lydia and her household “believed” and were baptized.

Acts 16:16-34 - The Philippian jailer “believed” with his household and they were baptized—and this was in the middle of the night!

Also consider the following passages:

Galatians 3:26,27 - “For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ.”

Ephesians 4:4-6 - “There is one body and one Spirit, just as you were called in one hope of your calling; one Lord, one faith, one baptism; one God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.”

On top of all these references, when Jesus left the earth (see the end of the book of Matthew) He told his followers to make disciples (followers), baptize them, and teach them. Jesus apparently felt it was pretty important to make this a priority for His followers.

The Bible is clear—belief and baptism were always together. Thus, “when we believe” is the right time to be baptized. If you “believed” some time back and were not baptized, then this should become a priority for you to fulfill what God asks you do in the Bible.


Why should someone be baptized?

Acts 2:38 - Tying repentance and baptism together provides forgiveness of your sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit.

Romans 6:1-7 - This shows us that the mode of baptism (immersion) pictures the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus. In the same way that He went through these things, our old nature is to “die” and we are to be “buried with Him through baptism into death” and raised to “walk in newness of life” (live like Jesus). So we do not just try to be a better person, we bury the “old person” in the water and become a “new person” through our acceptance of Christ. It is like a new birth and a new beginning for us.

Galatians 3:27 - We “put on Christ” when we are baptized.

1 Peter 3:21 - Baptism is not an outward cleaning, but saves us through an inward cleaning. It is an appeal to God for a good conscience and asks God to take away the guilt of our past sin (that Christ paid for, wiping our “inner slate” clean).

And to answer the 3 questions: what do you think?

Corinthians

I am reading 1 Corinthians and this question came to me because I was not clear with what Paul's message was. Than I had a hunch. I believe the following study to be accurate. I am open for more suggestions.

WERE THE CORINTHIANS JEWS?
A. E. Knoch

QUESTION: Some say that the first epistle to the Corinthians is written to Jews, not to gentiles, because Paul said that all their fathers were with Moses. Is this proof?

Before answering the question, which seeks to reason out the answer, let us see if we can find a basis for faith in what is actually said on this subject in the Scriptures. The facts are clearly set forth in Acts (18:6). Paul had been arguing in the synagogue, and finally certified to the Jews that Jesus is the Christ. "Now at their resisting and blaspheming, shaking out his garments, he said to them, 'Your blood be on your head! I am clear. From now on I shall go to the nations.'"

That the Jews continued in unbelief is clear from the fact that, later, "the Jews, with one accord, assaulted Paul" (verse 12). So few Jews believed that he can speak simply of "the Jews" as outside, not inside. Paul worked among the nations in Corinth after the Jews rejected his message. Many were reached during the year and six months he was in the city (verses 9-11). Acts teaches plainly that the Corinthian ecclesia was gentile, with only a few Jews from the synagogue.

The epistle itself confirms this. Paul writes (12:2) "you were of the nations." Words could not be plainer. Faith will accept them. May I affectionately entreat all who wish to cleave to God's Word, to take their stand on this divine revelation, and repudiate all attempts at reasoning to an opposite conclusion? The Corinthians were of the nations.

For the sake of those who have been involved in the reasonings which seek to show that the Corinthians were Jews we will briefly examine the question and seek to show that its deductions are mentally unsound. Paul says that "our fathers all were under the cloud." This is taken as proof that the ancestors of the Corinthians were with Moses, hence Jews. Had he written your fathers, there would be no question but that the Corinthians were meant. But he said our, which grammatically excludes them, and, if it proves anything, proves the opposite, that the Corinthians were not Jews. This will be more clearly apparent from a few examples of the same form of this word in the Corinthian epistles:

Some occurrences of heemoon, OF-US, in Corinthians

1 Cor. 4: 8 you reign apart from us
10: 1 our fathers all were under the cloud
15:14 our heralding is for naught
2 Cor. 1: 7 our expectation is confirmed over you
: 8 ignorant...concerning our affliction
:11 you also assisting together by a petition for us.
:12 our boasting...our conscience
:14 we are your glory (even as you are ours)
:18 our word toward you

These examples should show conclusively that the pronoun of the first person plural us, our refers primarily to the writers or speakers, and not to those addressed. This can be seen clearly in Ephesians 1:3-12, where the apostle does not include the nations until, in the thirteenth verse, he brings them in by saying "you also."

The confusion has arisen from the fact that a writer or speaker may include those he addresses when using our. Thus I can say to my English readers that we are working on our German version, and he will not feel that he is included. But if I refer to "our Authorized Version " all English-speaking readers will feel that they are included. It is most unwise to reason from such shifting premises. Paul often used our in this inclusive sense, as our Lord, our God, our admonition (10:11). Appeal to one set of passages and you can "prove" that the Corinthians were not Jews. Yet if you bring up the others, you can "prove" that they were.

Again we earnestly and lovingly entreat all who love the Word of God to take a firm stand against the misleading method of making this or that "Jewish" because of the way in which the nations are spoken of. Paul can speak of the nations when writing to them. Here are a few passages from Romans, in which the apostle plainly says, "I am saying to you, the nations" (Rom.11:13), which, according to this method "prove" that Romans was written to the Jews.

Rom. 2:14 whenever they of the nations, having no law
:24 the name of God is blasphemed among the nations
9:30 the nations who are not pursuing
11:11 their offense is salvation to the nations
:12 their discomfiture the nations' riches
1 Cor. 5: 1 is not even being named among the nations
10:20 that which the nations are sacrificing

"Dividing" based on such false premises has led to the mutilation of the Scriptures. A sane and sober faith will believe the plain statements on this theme and avoid extremes. Both Jews and gentiles were in Corinth, but the nations predominated to such an extent that the apostle can ignore the Jews when he says "you were of the nations" (1 Cor.12:2).